{"id":98,"date":"2006-11-28T21:47:00","date_gmt":"2006-11-29T01:47:00","guid":{"rendered":"http:\/\/alanrhoda.net\/wordpress\/?p=98"},"modified":"2006-11-28T21:47:00","modified_gmt":"2006-11-29T01:47:00","slug":"tense-logic-and-the-end-of-time","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"http:\/\/alanrhoda.net\/wordpress\/2006\/11\/tense-logic-and-the-end-of-time\/","title":{"rendered":"Tense Logic and the End of Time"},"content":{"rendered":"<p>Over the past four months I&#8217;ve been working off-and-on on a paper on tense logic, in which I argue against the common assumption (common, that is, in philosophy of time circles) that the mere fact that some event happens at time <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span> is sufficient for it to have always been the case prior to <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>, that that event was going to happen at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>. More precisely, the thesis I want to reject is<span style=\"font-style: italic;\"><span style=\"font-style: italic;\"><\/span><\/span><\/p>\n<blockquote><p>(1) \u25a1(\u2200p)(\u2200t)(\u2200u: u<t )(IS(p,t) \u2192 WAS(WILL(p,t),u))\n\ni.e., necessarily, for all propositions p, and for all times t and u such that u is prior to t, p is the case at t, then at u it was the case that p will be the case at t.<\/p><\/blockquote>\n<p>I like to call this the <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">IS implies WAS(WILL) principle<\/span>, or IIWW for short.<\/p>\n<p>The main defense of (1) runs as follows: For any state of affairs S and time <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>, either S obtains at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span> or S does not obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>. One or the either must be true. Now jump back to an earlier time, <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">u<\/span>, and consider the truth value <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">at u<\/span> of the propositions &#8220;S will obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8221; and &#8220;S will not obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8220;, where the future-tense is to be understood in such a way that it carries no modal force. Thus, &#8220;S will obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8221; is supposed to mean <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">merely<\/span> &#8220;At future time <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>, S obtains.&#8221; Since, it must be the case at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span> either that S obtains or that S does not obtain, and since &#8220;S will obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8221; means merely &#8220;At future time <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>, S obtains&#8221; and &#8220;S will not obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8221; means merely &#8220;At future time <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>, S does not obtain&#8221;, it seems that either &#8220;S will obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8221; or &#8220;S will not obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8221; must be true <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">at u<\/span>, prior to <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>, and that which is true at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">u<\/span> is determined solely by what obtains at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>.<\/p>\n<p>If the foregoing argument is sound, then (1) is correct. But is it sound? I don&#8217;t think so. And I think I can show this by pointing to the possibility of time coming to an end. First of all, is it possible that time come to an end? I don&#8217;t see why not. There&#8217;s no obvious contradiction, and any argument that purported to demonstrate a contradiction would have to show that the mere fact that one event comes after another requires that there be a third event after that one, and so on. In other words, to show that there could not possibly be an end to time one would have to show that &#8220;A occurs after B&#8221; implies &#8220;Some event, C, occurs after B&#8221;. That inference is certainly not valid as it stands, and I don&#8217;t see any way to make it both valid and sound.<\/p>\n<p>So let&#8217;s suppose that it is possible that time come to an end. What bearing does this have on (1)? A lot. Consider our pair of propositions &#8220;S will obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8221; and &#8220;S will not obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8220;. Let us suppose that the time is now <span style=\"font-style: italic;\"><\/span><span style=\"font-style: italic;\"><\/span><span style=\"font-style: italic;\"><span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span><\/span>-minus 10 and that at precisely <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>-minus 5 time stops for good. In that case, there never exists a time <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>. Hence, S neither obtains nor does not obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>. Hence, both &#8220;S will obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8221; and &#8220;S will not obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8221; are <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">false<\/span>. And what that means is that those two propositions, even when interpreted in the strictly non-modal way that I&#8217;ve indicated, are <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">not contradictories, but contraries<\/span>.<\/p>\n<p>Let me restate things to make my point clear. My argument does not depend on the assumption that time will come to an end, but only on the logical <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">possibility<\/span> that it come to an end. Once that is granted, (1) must be false. That it is now true that S will obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span> requires not only that <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">S obtain<\/span> at future time <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>, but also that there <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">be <\/span>a future time <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>. Hence, the mere fact that S obtains at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span> does not suffice to ground the prior truth of the proposition &#8220;S will obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8220;. What we would <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">also <\/span>need to know is that as of that prior time it is not possible that there not be a future time <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>.<\/p>\n<p>Okay, but if &#8220;S will obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8221; and &#8220;S will not obtain at <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>&#8221; are contraries and thus can both be false, then what <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">is true<\/span> when both are false? What, in other words, is the third possibility? Simply this, that there is no future time <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">t<\/span>.<\/p>\n<p>The significance of this argument for my purposes concerns the issues of whether the &#8216;Peircean&#8217; or the &#8216;Ockhamist&#8217; system of tense logic is to be preferred. As I discussed in <a href=\"http:\/\/www.alanrhoda.net\/blog\/2006\/09\/tense-logic-bivalence-and-open-theism.html#links\">a previous post<\/a>, there is a <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">prima facie<\/span> problem for the Peircean, for it seems hard to deny that there are such propositions as the Ockhamist&#8217;s non-modal propositions about the future. Given that there are such propositions, by the argument I gave on behalf of (1) above, it seems that the only way for the Peircean to reject (1) is to deny bivalence. So the Peircean seems to face a serious dilemma: Either (a) take the implausible tack of denying that Ockhamist-style propositions about the future are really propositions, or (b) take the implausible tack of denying the principle of bivalence. What I have now argued by appealing to the possibility of ending time is that this is a false dilemma. The Peircean can concede the Ockhamist his propositions and retain bivalence by showing that <span style=\"font-style: italic;\">even on the Ockhamist&#8217;s own terms<\/span> &#8216;will&#8217; and &#8216;will not&#8217; are not contradictories, but contraries.<\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"<p>Over the past four months I&#8217;ve been working off-and-on on a paper on tense logic, in which I argue against the common assumption (common, that is, in philosophy of time circles) that the mere fact that some event happens at time t is sufficient for it to have always been the case prior to t,\u2026 <span class=\"read-more\"><a href=\"http:\/\/alanrhoda.net\/wordpress\/2006\/11\/tense-logic-and-the-end-of-time\/\">Read More &raquo;<\/a><\/span><\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"open","ping_status":"open","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"footnotes":""},"categories":[1],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-98","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-uncategorized"],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"http:\/\/alanrhoda.net\/wordpress\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/98","targetHints":{"allow":["GET"]}}],"collection":[{"href":"http:\/\/alanrhoda.net\/wordpress\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"http:\/\/alanrhoda.net\/wordpress\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"http:\/\/alanrhoda.net\/wordpress\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"http:\/\/alanrhoda.net\/wordpress\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=98"}],"version-history":[{"count":0,"href":"http:\/\/alanrhoda.net\/wordpress\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/98\/revisions"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"http:\/\/alanrhoda.net\/wordpress\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=98"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"http:\/\/alanrhoda.net\/wordpress\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=98"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"http:\/\/alanrhoda.net\/wordpress\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=98"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}